Which play did William Shakespeare write for King James I of England?

Correct answer: The Tragedy of Macbeth

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What people think about it: 4 Comments
BlueEyedAlien
BlueEyedAlien
Because of the change of dynastic families from Tudor to Stuart, it was important to establish the rightful familial claim. Shakespeare’s play helped to do that. But Shakespeare never stuck to true history when he needed to establish a historical point.
Yana
Yana
I would have requested a comedy .
Greygranite
Greygranite
He was James V1 of Scotland first then also became James 1 of England after the death of Elizabeth 1
ChewyGazelle68623
ChewyGazelle68623
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