Did the Romans have a number for zero?

The first recorded zero appeared in Mesopotamia around 3 B.C. The Mayans invented it independently circa 4 A.D. It was later devised in India in the mid-fifth century, spread to Cambodia near the end of the seventh century, and into China and the Islamic countries at the end of the eighth.

India was the first country to use a zero to denote tens, hundreds, thousands etc.

and telling my intelligence I think it's no

Nulla means zero. So doesn't that mean the Romans had a meaning of zero?

so wouldn't the word they used for zero mean zero? but at the same time in numbers?

Mardell Riley, I had 258 answers right, 100%correct!!

I know that word because , never mind.